"Allowed by law", "legal" and "constitutional" are all entirely separate terms.
Without trying to confuse the issue too much, Congress could pass a law that makes slavery legal again, which is to say, that it is allowed by law. The flip side to that though, is that the Constitution would prohibit such an action.
That is clearly of little comfort in the meantime, but it does mean that law enforcement officers are not necessarily bound to enforce the law, courts are not necessarily bound to uphold it, and it likely has a good chance of being overturned by the Supreme Court (if not before).
American Jurisprudence has this to say on the matter:
It is impossible for both the Constitution and a law to be
valid, one must prevail. This is succinctly stated as follows:
The general rule is that an unconstitutional statute, though having
the form and name of law, is in reality no law, but is wholly void,
and ineffective for any purpose since unconstitutionality dates from
the time of its enactment, and not merely from the date of the
decision so branding it an unconstitutional law.
In legal contemplation, it is as inoperative as if it had never
been passed...
Since an unconstitutional law is void the general principles follow;
that it imposes no duties, confers no rights, creates no office, bestows
no power of authority on anyone, affords no protection, and justifies no
acts performed under it.
A void law cannot be legally consistent with a valid one. An
unconstitutional law cannot operate to supersede any existing valid law.
Indeed, insofar as a statute runs counter to the fundamental law of the
land, it is superseded thereby.
No one is bound to obey an unconstitutional law and no court is bound to
enforce it.
Interestingly, your own extended quote from American Jurisprudence contradicts your thesis, and clearly lays out why "legal" and "constitutional" are not separate terms, as a purported law that contravenes the Constitution, "though having the form and name of law, is in reality no law" and "is as inoperative as if it had never been passed". Therefore, while Congress could pass something that pretended to be a law which violated the Constitution, by doing so it would make "in reality no law", and whatever was purported to be made legal by that law would not be legal.
To be legal, under US law, an act must necessarily be Constitutional as well; an unconstitutional act is, ipso facto, illegal.
Too true. I was trying to differentiate the difference between Congress' "legalization" of something, and its actual legality and, in the process, failed miserably.
Without trying to confuse the issue too much, Congress could pass a law that makes slavery legal again, which is to say, that it is allowed by law. The flip side to that though, is that the Constitution would prohibit such an action.
That is clearly of little comfort in the meantime, but it does mean that law enforcement officers are not necessarily bound to enforce the law, courts are not necessarily bound to uphold it, and it likely has a good chance of being overturned by the Supreme Court (if not before).
American Jurisprudence has this to say on the matter:
(16 Am. Jur. 2d, Sec. 178)