I'm all for some privacy protections, but doesn't 2-party consent cover that particular use case already? In CA, it swings a bit far the other way, and if you have a hidden mic recording a business lying through their teeth with the intent to defraud you, you might have a little wiggle room, but the recording is likely to be thrown out of any civil actions (and some criminal actions).
Don't you have to be party to the conversation to be 1-party? Should still be illegal to record one you're not a part of. (if such laws even apply in person rather than just over phones)